on a two channel amp, with one 4 ohm speaker per channel is 4 ohms load each channel. they are seperate. when bridged with two 4 ohm speakers, the amp becomes one channel. the load is 2 ohms. that is it
on a side note the op never said what the speakers impedence even was

 

Just got this off the net , please read the 3rd Paragraph . When a two channel amp is bridged the Impedence is 50% (OR HALF) of the total impedence presented to the amplifier . Let me say this again . If you presented the amp with a 2 OHM LOAD (2 4 ohm drivers wired in parallel) it would be a 1 OHM load on the amplifier because it is bridged . If this doesn't do it for you , please call a respected car audio shop and ask them . And I don't mean some 20 year old working at Best Buy .

Bridging Amplifiers



This is probably one of the most controversial topics in car stereo. Most are mystified by both the specifications and the way in which amplifiers are bridged. The term “Bridging” is really not a correct description of what we are trying to achieve when connecting amplifiers in this mode. The old professional term was “Strapping”. Anyhow we shall stick with “Bridging” since we are all used to it.



When we bridge an amplifier we actually stack the two channels one on top of each other. Not physically but electronically. What we do is to ask one channel to handle the positive side of a waveform and then the other channel to handle the negative side. This sounds rather confusing so let’s show an example. We have a 100w/ch amplifier at 4 ohms which doubles power into 2 ohms. The power supply rails are +/-33v (33 peak x 0.7071 = 23.33 volts RMS). We require that we deliver 20 volts into our 4 or 2 ohm load. So the 23.33 is fine as we have some losses in the output stages due to output device saturation volt drops. The specification of this amplifier in bridge mode would read as follows: 200 watt mono into 8 ohms and 400 watt mono into 4 ohms. Look at these numbers carefully and they are not magic. The 200 watt 8 ohm is derived from the 100+100 at 4 ohm and the 400 watt 4 ohm from the 200+200 at 2 ohm specifications.



What has happened is that the load impedance “seen” by each of the two channels in bridged mode is 50% of the total load impedance.

 

You are amazingly blind of your series of incorrect statements.
First and second points I highlighted are reflections of my statement that the channels see different loads than the amplifier itself.
And then the kicker - you managed to find an article, attempting to prove me wrong, that had what I said nearly word for word in its conclusion.

I don't care how many years of whatever experience you have. That really is irrelevant, and a shameless attempt to validate your incorrect answers.

 

Not sure anyone here can understand what was written there. Doesn't cost extra to use a few capital letters and punctuation marks.

 

well, it is what it is. i dont type well, nor care too.. im not exactly an office worker. so if it bothers some, then dont read, i use these forums to escape the wife....

 

when bridging it then becomes mono..correct? it must depend on the amp.... whatever

 

Are you retarded ? Your comparing a Bridged two channel amp to a Monoblock amp . If it were a Monoblock amp , yes two 4 ohm drivers in parallel would present a 2 ohm load to the amplifier . But in BRIDGED mono mode(2 channel amp) 2 - 4 ohm subs in parallel would present a 1 ohm load to the amp . Now , before you run your Pie hole , simply call a Car Audio store and you'll find out your wrong .

 

Why would I call a car audio store?

No, Im not retarded, and no, I am not comparing a bridged 2 channel amp to a single channel amp.

It presents a 1 ohm load to each channel of the amplifier, not the amplifier itself. 2 ohms does not magically become 1 ohm simply because you bridge them.

This is unbelievably simple, yet the major concept keeps escaping you. There is no magic ohm reduction power that comes with your Y-split RCAs. Resistance is resistance unless you fundamentally change the parts involved. Which has not occured here.

Some amplifiers, in the case of IA's 20.1 and 40.1 series, are infinitely strappable. These are monoblock amplifiers which can be daisy chained together to reduce the impedence presented to each one, down to hundredths of an ohm. This, however, does not change the overall load presented to the group of amplifiers as a whole.

 

lulz

The output is synchronized into one channel, yes, but both channels of the amplifier are still in operation.

 

Wrong ,you have no clue . When you bridge a two channel amp ,it becomes 1 channel . Please read.

http://www.ehow.com/how_5149825_brid...amplifier.html

 

Another nice article.This paragraph was taken out of this article . I guess OMF350 would be considered MANY PEOPLE BELIEVE . Like I said ,I've been doing this ,probably longer than you've been alive ,and I am right .


NOTE: When you bridge two channels of an amplifier you will be cutting the "effective" impedance of the speaker load in half. For example, bridging an amplifier to a 4 ohm speaker will make the "effective" impedance 2 ohms. This is why an amplifier can quadruple the power of a single channel when bridged. Each of the previous two channels will see a load of 2 ohms. This would give a stereo output of 100 watts by two channels. Since there is only one channel it combines both 100 watt channels and becomes a 200 watt channel. This is an important point. Many people believe that if their amplifier is 2 ohm stable then they can bridge it to a 2 ohm speaker load. This is not the case as a bridged amplifier will see a 2 ohm speaker load as 1 ohm. Many authors have tried to explain why this is and I have yet to see one do it effectively. I'm no exception so my advice is just accept it as fact and don't bust your brain on it.



http://www.caraudiohelp.com/newslett...amplifiers.htm

 

amp will need to be 1 ohm stable in stereo though, to be 2 ohm stable bridged.
a bridged amp "shares" the impedance between 2 channels. While this isn't technically true since one channel is inverted when bridged, it's a common misconception and his opinion is understandable.

Ultimately the load itself is 2 ohms when two single voice coil 4 ohm woofers are wired in parallel, the amp's configuration is not part of that equati say......... 2ohms is the final load...

 

OMG , dude can you read? In Bridged Mode the amplifier will see 2 ohm speaker Impedence as 1 ohm . I guess your in the MANY PEOPLE BELIEVE catagory with OMF350 . If you hook 1 SVC 4 ohm driver to a BRIDGED 2 channel amp , the amp will see a 2 ohm load . If you parallel wire another SVC 4 ohm driver , the amp will see a 1 ohm load . If you people think different , you don't have a clue .

 

no need to get mad.... this is my own idea, not takin sides here..

 

No need to get mad ? People on this Forum are a joke , If your not 100% sure about something , keep your mouth shut . Like I stated before , I've been doing Car Audio a long time and I have people arguing with me about subjects that they THINK they know .